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1  Social Discussions / Philosophy and Religion / Re: Lord Holy Language Resurrection. on: June 18, 2008, 04:25:52 PM
No. You'll notice that the first and second here contradict each other. It was already rolling for years before the "English". Do you really think that English derived from Latin and Greek, uses the latin alphabet but was invented only 1000 years ago in Britain? Not trying to be an asshole here just asking you to think about that. Latin, Greek and German are English's parents. Old French and Old Saxon were simply coexisting with old Englsh. Naturally words were exchanged but since even those have latin and greek backgrounds...
No, I don't want to quibble about which other language forms the largest influence on 'old English' vs 'middle English' vs 'modern English.  I'll certainly grant that latin itself is a more 'elder parent' than French and that French is very latin-ish to begin with.  I don't really have any dispute with you about the point of origin of English language.  We are certainly agreed that English is a bastard/mongrel language.  I never meant to suggest otherwise.

Quote from: Ahkenaten
If you follow proto-English and "old English" you'll see it was already in use between the peoples of the Mediterranean, Germany and Scandinavia.

This is apparently where we are in disagreement.  As far as I understand the history of English, the early phase known as "old English" is the period of 5th century up to 1066.  That is the language of Beowulf.  It essentially developed as a vernacular language for the Angles and Saxons in England and that's about it.

I've found no references of this 'old English' language being used as a 'bridge' language for any third parties at that point in history - apart from the obvious connection with northern Germany and Denmark (from whence the Angles and Saxons came).  The only reference to the language in terms of the Mediterranean I can find would be the Vangarian Guard of the Byzantine Emperors and that's it.  In this last respect, it was always customary for Roman Emperors to have a private bodyguard made up of elite foreign/barbarian warriors. 

Quote from: Dormouse
The English language is only about 1000 years old.

The 'middle English' beginning with the Norman conquest is the language of Chaucer and this is the particular phase I was referring to with my point about English being about 1000 years old.  That is to say, from a modern perspective (and a lay reader), the language of Chaucer can be very challenging indeed, but the language of Beowulf is utterly incomprehensible to anyone not trained to it.

That being said, you are most certainly correct that 'old English' obviously is much older than 1000 years. 

Quote from: Ahkenaten
Beowulf, (900AD) is "old English" and has nothing to do with Britain. The language was already in use for centuries at that time.
As noted above, I don't dispute the age of 'old English'.  However I must insist that 'old English' still has everything thing to do with being a British language.  That's where it was created, that's where it was used, that's where it grew to become the language we use today.  Certainly lots of other languages have had a large influence, but to say 'old English' has nothing to do with Britain just defies my comprehension.

Quote from: Ahkenaten
That language a, b or c may be most heavily by population used does not make it "international", or we'd be speaking Chinese. English is a mongrel language born from the others. It is fair to point out though how many each influence the other. Britannia came, most likely, from Roman mispronouncing Praetanii which was a label laid on the Celts by a greek. Praetanni, became Britanii.
I don't dispute this.  I only have disputed your assertion that English, whether that be 'old English' or 'middle English', served as any kind of international language prior to the modern era.  It certainly served as a common language for various peoples in Britain, no doubt of that, but I just don't see much evidence of its usage outside of Britain by non-Brits (using these terms loosely here).

As far as I understand western European history of the 5th to the 15th century, only Latin and later French could possibly be asserted to have any substantial currency as an international language in Europe at that time period.  Certainly not 'old English' except perhaps in some pockets on the outer edges of Europe.

Quote from: Ahkenaten
Fair enough, and thanks. Never heard of this. But the point I made about monotheism is only more valid then.
Yes, I'm sure we are entirely in agreement on the entire lack of merit in the idea expressed in the OP.

Quote from: Ahkenaten
leave you with:
Quote
When English was being born, all writers in it were also writers of Latin. Latin words came into English from the first, and many were added later. Spanish was created among Latin speakers who had to communicate with Goths when they joined together to fight the Arabs, and Spanish contains many concessions to Visigothic habits (as well as later Arabic influences). English words with Latin antecedents arrived by several routes. Some were present when English was created; some entered through Norman French and other languages, some were coined later, and some are cognates (cousins, not descendants) like the prepostion in. English was, I believe, created as a common means of communication for a country of many languages, but, after 1066, with one Latin-literate court.
I never disputed that English originates as a common means of communication in 'dark ages' Britain.  I have only objected to your assertion of the substantial international usage of the language at that time period. 

As far as I'm concerned, English's rise to international stature doesn't really begin until the industrial revolution and didn't really become dominant until WW2.

My apologies for continuing this topic digression about the history of English, but it is a more interesting topic than the OP.
2  Social Discussions / Philosophy and Religion / Re: Lord Holy Language Resurrection. on: June 04, 2008, 11:25:52 AM
No again sir. English owes it's invention to Europeans not the "English". It was created from Celtic, Germanic, Spanish and above all Latin & Greek influence in the beginning, and right from the start was meant as a cosmopolitan all encompassing language to be used universally. It was the first Indo European "language of commerce".
1. English was invented entirely in Britain by Brits.

2. Old Saxon and Old French are the largest source of words in the English language.  There are some Celtic, Latin and Greek elements certainly.  The inclusion of "Spanish" in your list above (and missing French) is what caught my attention.

3. The development of the English language owes nothing to the goal of a cosmopolitian and all encompassing language to be used universally.  That is pure hyperbole.  English may have ended up that way, but it was never intended for that purpose.  Indeed, English was not usually spoken by a majority of the English ruling class until the 18th century, and English language grammar and spelling rules were only invented in the very late 19th century (for the simple reason that English elites for hundreds of years didn't think the language was worthy of educated persons).

4. French was the 1st internationally used language of diplomacy and commerce, not English.  Hence the expression lingua Franca.

Quote from: Ahkenaten
Today it is the global "language of commerce". Historically something doesnt get fixed unless it's broke. This status as a "catch-all" and "world-wide" language has not changed in 2000+ years.
The English language is only about 1000 years old.

For most of the time period you specify, Latin or French was the most heavily used international language.

Quote from: Ahkenaten
Further the first Monotheist was Akhenaten, an Egyptian....again 1000 years before the Bible or Abraham or the Jews or Jesu Christi.
Again, not correct.

Zoroaster has the honor of being the oldest (or first) monotheist religion, predating Akhenaten/Amenhotep IV by at least 1000 years or more

Btw, it sure is amazing the way the Jews keep constantly claiming to be the oldest monotheist religion when there are two clear examples of monotheists that predate them.

3  Social Discussions / Philosophy and Religion / Re: Religion fueled bigotry... on: May 24, 2008, 04:48:03 AM
But I have a question: I got into an argument about what "tolerant" means. My opponent would have considered this principle "tolerant" because he's not actively trying to hurt them. I disagreed.

Thoughts?
The Principal's act was a clear case of "attempted" intolerance. 

The Principal has every right to resign over such issues of conscience.  That is his private right.

But the Principal made a big public announcement about it - essentially a threat to ban the new club.

From the news story, it appears that this Principal only backed down once he learned that the school board couldn't legally support him.  So his attempt at intolerance failed.  And then he agrees not to resign.

That's pathetic.  The Principal threatens to resign over the gay club, then recinds his threatened resignation when he discovers that he's lost the battle.

Kinda makes me suspicious about those 'principles' he was standing on to make his resignation in the first place.  The terms of his resignation suggests that he ought to resign and stay resigned.

Indeed, this Principal apparently thinks that his religious principles and convictions are merely things used to posture with to get what you want.  If that fails, then the religious principles and convictions that motivated it all apparently are secondary to the Principal's love of this job and income.

Smells like hypocritical religioius posturing to me.  And a clear attempt at intolerance that failed. 
4  Social Discussions / Sports and Entertainment / Re: The Tudors on: May 15, 2008, 07:09:23 AM
Anyone watching it?

I never had a European History class (which is a shame, cause I find it incredibly interesting) and am curious if anyone could say how true to form it all is. My dad taught European History AGES ago, but now he's a visual arts teacher, so he's pretty much my fact checker, but he's admittidly rusty.

As for the show, it's really quite good. Dramatic, fast paced and the acting is phenominal. And the ladies? Wow! Just... wow!

Anyway, I'm bored and thought I'd see if anyone has seen it...
British medieval history is one of my fields of specialized study.  And yes, I've been watching the series.

For the most part, the series is remarkably good for a television-based mini-series on a famous historical period.  Sure there is some 'dramatic' license here and there, but overall, the series is rather well done from a purely historical perspective (no surprise given the production credits).

My only complaint is that they make Henry look a lot more decent, upstanding and clever than he perhaps really was.  He was a very typical medieval king, mostly concerned only for himself and his patrimony.  Personally, Henry VIII would not make my list of the top five best British monarchs.  He was way too self-centered and emotively reactive to be a good king.  He was a spendthrift, a mediocre administrator and didn't actually achieve much during his long reign.

Btw, Henry was indeed touted as an uncommonly handsome prince in his younger years.


5  Social Discussions / Philosophy and Religion / Re: Before Darwin on: May 10, 2008, 05:28:00 AM
Fair enough... The point of the OP is that Darwin's ideas provided an alternative explanation for the origins of man.  Without evolution and natural selection, how could an atheist argue against the watchmaker argument?
The watchmaker argument was constructed by theists in response to the challenge of the theory of evolution.

Besides, I see no logical or rational reason why any atheist should need or want or bother to argue against the watchmaker argument.  Atheism itself does not require or necessitate that act.

From the perspective of philosophy, the watchmaker argument is nothing more than a restatement of the Genesis theory in that it is asserted entirely as an article of faith.  Atheism essentially just rejects all human-assertions or human-constructions of alleged statements of God's truth.  That is to say, atheism is entirely a negative assertion, it contains no positive content.  One cannot project positive content onto atheism itself. 

For example, the theory of evolution, or theory of natural selection, may be disproven in the future - if this were to occur, this would not directly impact the rational validity of atheism itself.  Atheism is not dependent upon evolutionary theory (they are merely mutually compatible concepts).

Btw, Candide is the name of a novel written by Voltaire in 1759, based on the famous Lisbon earthquake of 1755.  This novel serves as a classic example of 'atheist' type ideas in evidence - a full century before Darwin came along.  One might say that this novel represents the introduction of the idea of atheism into popular consciousness.
6  Social Discussions / Philosophy and Religion / Re: Epistemology on: May 10, 2008, 05:00:29 AM
Aren't theist and atheist philosophical terms rather than religious ones?
The term "atheist" originates (in usage) as a slur favored by religious types to use against their political enemies (circa 16th century).

According to Wiki (or the OED) it is not until the 18th century before any 'positive' usage/affirmation of the term is found.  Until that time, the term existed as a religious slur alone. 

Indeed, the 'positive' usage of this term is almost entirely identical to the way homosexuals have co-opted the term "fag" and Afro-Americans have co-opted the term "nigger" - turning these slurs into a badge they choose to be proud of.

Quote from: Warr_E_Er
The existence of God falls outside of the realm of epistemology, not philosophy.  God cannot be empirically confirmed nor denied.  All philosophies beyond 'Cogito ergo sum' are similar in this sense since they cannot be absolutely proven or rejected. However, since philosophy is the search for truth, the question of God still applies. 
Philosophy is NOT the search for truth. 

If that were true, then we'd be talking about 'aletheisophy' instead of 'philosophy' as that would be the proper term for the study or search for truth. 

As I've noted previously and repeatedly, philosophy is a search (or love) of wisdom.  It is a religious conceit to just assume that "wisdom" means "God" by definition.  It might, or it might not. 

According to the reasonings of epistemology, God's existence (or not) is a matter that categorically resides entirely outside the realm of human knowledge.  Philosophy is properly concerned with human-based knowledge - it is human subjective by definition.  Ergo, God's existence is not a relevant question of analysis in philosophy because the existence of God(s) are not subject to any consistent rule of human reasoning, human rationality or human logic.

The search for (or love of) truth is essentially the practical definition of religion (holding that truth is synonymous with God's truth).
7  Social Discussions / Philosophy and Religion / Re: Epistemology on: May 09, 2008, 09:10:59 AM
An answer to the question of Gods existence must be asserted once the foundation of epistemology has been layed.   Without an answer to this fundamental question, we do not have the necessary framework for contingent philosophies (i.e. morality, origin of the mind, etc.).   
There are several other "religious-themed" threads in this sub-forum that are begging for one's religious opinions regarding God's existence.  This isn't one of them.

If you follow Kant's reasoning, God's existence stands entirely outside the realm of human knoweldge (by definition).  Ergo, questions about God's existence have no place in philosophy.

8  Social Discussions / Philosophy and Religion / Re: Epistemology on: May 09, 2008, 09:06:43 AM
I see that truth and knowledge can be explored without invoking god, but is that proof that truth or knowledge are more important than god? 
No, and I never said they were.
Then I'm not sure what this means.
Quote
...take philosophical 'primacy' above the religious concern for God's theoretical existence.
What is it you are trying to discuss/explain here?
Arguments about God's existence are a matter of religion alone.

Arguments about God's existence are not a matter of philosophic inquiry.
9  Social Discussions / Philosophy and Religion / Re: Before Darwin on: May 09, 2008, 09:04:24 AM
before Scientific rationalism I don't think we could really apply "rationality" as we now define it.
Indeed.  Those ancient Greeks were idiots and not worth paying attention to.


so you don't think that the Greeks had aspects of Scientific Rationalism?
Apparently my sarcasm was too subtle.

I was mocking the notion that scientific rationalism begins with Darwin.
10  Assistance and Feedback / The Lobbyist (Off Topic) / Re: Same old same old on: May 07, 2008, 08:40:13 AM
I'm glad you decided to stay, Dormouse. We may disagree on a couple of things, but you're intelegent and certaintly a proficient writer.
Sorry, but I've since had cause to reconsider that decision.
11  Assistance and Feedback / The Inferno / Re: First Quarter Review 2008 (2008-04-28) on: May 07, 2008, 03:23:08 AM
Do you take everything so personally?
I take nothing personally.

However, I do take people's words for what they say, not what one might think they are implying by giving them the benefit of the doubt.  I give no one the benefit of the doubt.

I do like economics discussions, I do like to start economics threads, I do find the topic interesting, I have studied the topic and I'm the one who is posting here talking about not posting here.

And the comment was clearly directed as an argument about why people don't post on economics threads.  Ergo, since I was talking about that precise topic, it applies to me.  That may not have been the intention of the poster (I don't really care if it was or not), that is the outcome of that poster's words.

Anyway, I'm not sure which is more weird - the vague insult against any who might want to discuss economics (but won't because of commercial spam), or the 'full-court' press from all the site admins here to defend that view.  Seems odd.  (and no, I'm not asking for more admins to argue the point - the point is quite uninteresting).
12  Political Discussions / Europe and Asia / Re: TIBET on: May 06, 2008, 08:03:23 AM
About Reporters without Borders:
      Is RSF a press agency or political accessory?
When the torch-lighting ceremony for the Beijing 2008 Olympic Games was held at the site of ancient Olympia in Greece on March 24, three men broke away from the cordon to unfurl a flag which showed handcuffs in the form of Olympic rings. In the meantime another man rose from the VIP seat and showed a black banner. They were members of the Paris-based RSF, which is headed by the man in the VIP seat named Robert Menard, the group's secretary-general.

That scenario was the beginning of the destructive campaign staged by the group against the Olympic torch relay in London, Paris and other cities.

On April 7, the Olympic flame had to be extinguished several times during the Paris leg of its relay due to the impudent activities by Tibetan separatist protestors and RSF members. They also reportedly climbed onto the Eiffel Tower to display a banner with the aforementioned "handcuffs".

During the Nagano leg of the torch relay on April 26, RSF members appeared among Japanese right wingers and nationalists. They together put on a despicable performance by throwing articles at the Olympic flame and torchbearers.

People wonder why "Reporters without Borders", a self-clamed protector of journalists and the free press, so passionately wreck the Olympic torch relay in a barbaric manner. Does the group really work for press media, or pursue genuine free press? What they're doing has no connection with free press. What they did also makes people wonder if the group is an Olympics protestor or a political accessory of anti-China forces.

Obviously RSF orchestrated these hostile movements against the Beijing Olympics, according to what they have done during the torch relay of the Beijing Olympic Games.

According to the information uncovered by French newspaper Le Figaro, RSF collaborated with American right-wing political groups to put pressure on those enterprises from the US, Germany and Switzerland to prevent Beijing from winning the Olympic bid in 2001.

As a French journalist disclosed in his book, RSF always spares no effort to do whatever their sponsors tell them to do in order to get the funds they need. Trying to ruin the Beijing Olympics is just one of their methods to seek more money.

RSF is not a press agency but a money-seeking machine since they threw their basic ethical principles away. Ironically RSF claims it has obligations to protect journalists and the free press.

Tibet separatists and RSF came together to destroy the torch relay shamefully to politicize the Olympics and go against the Chinese people's wishes.

There's no doubt RSF was sponsored by stubborn anti-Chinese agencies to defame China and the Beijing Olympics. One thing for sure is that RSF will not last long once the truth comes out in the wash and it loses its dirty funds.
In the west, both people and private corporations are free to fund and organize such protests and don't need government permission to do so.  This is perfectly legal and normal behavior.  I understand how this might be difficult for you to believe as this is certainly not the case in China. 

You seem to believe that the protests against the Olympic Torch were some anti-Chinese conspiracy.  That's laughable.   There have been protests against a whole lot of Olympics in the past.  Nothing unusual or suprising here.

Only China's authoritarian 'thin-skin' seems surprising here.

But I suppose that's to be expected - all authoritarian regimes are ferocious against any opposition, real or imagined.

Indeed, China sought to use the Olympics as a political billboard in the first place - no surprise that others will try to use these same Olympics for their political agenda.

Btw, RSF is a totally private interest.  It is neither a government agency, nor a media publication.




13  Political Discussions / United States / Re: Como se dice flip-flop? on: May 06, 2008, 07:53:32 AM
Quote
anti-immigration

Just so we are clear...anti-ILLEGAL-immigration.
Nothing personal, but I'm not aware of such a distinction being meaningful or substantive in any way if you actually look at the content of what 'anti-immigration' people are saying about the issue.

USA has an illegal immigration problem because it has long choosen to categorize immigrants in that way.

The immigrants are coming no matter what - the only real issue is how you deal with that problem - either you can manage the process with legal immigration, or you can mis-manage the process and pander to the big-business lobby by categorizing immigrants as 'aliens' so that they can be paid less and denied rights.  Apparently the latter policy is quite electorally popular.






14  Social Discussions / Philosophy and Religion / Re: Epistemology on: May 06, 2008, 07:43:12 AM
I see that truth and knowledge can be explored without invoking god, but is that proof that truth or knowledge are more important than god? 
No, and I never said they were.

I suppose I'm being pedantic, but that's a common thing in philosophy.

The question of God's existence is irrelevant since God (or Gods), if they exist, are outside the realm of human knowledge.  Its not that this question isn't important, it is that this question cannot be rationally answered either way.  As such, the question is just a religious battle for converts (or pure speculation).  That has nothing to do with philosophy and everything to do with religion.

15  Political Discussions / United States / Re: Como se dice flip-flop? on: May 06, 2008, 07:36:12 AM
Anti-immigration is much like 'tort-reform' - policy proposals that are much loved by a small segment of the most vocal base of the Republican party and of interest to virtually no one else.

The 2006 midterms were a massive failure for the anti-immigration policy push.


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