illy
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illerino if youre not into the whole brevity thing
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« Reply #60 on: November 14, 2007, 05:12:07 PM » |
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I'm almost hesitant to post this, because this is a really good thread and I don't want to derail the conversation I'm learning so much from (I'm fairly ignorant when it comes to the nitty gritty of genetics, biology in general was always the hardest field for me by far).
My question is about design. If there were an intelligent force behind the design of living creatures, what is the explanation, if any for vestigial structures? Why would an intelligent design include function-less parts.
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Ammunition spitting is him, is it, you listening Littering written, it\\'s in slippers, get the rebel in him Sticking it with sinners, sizzlin\\' rhythm, verbally hit him Did he did it, or did he didn\\'t, admit it - Rugged Man - Give it Up
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Reasoned Faith
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« Reply #61 on: November 14, 2007, 06:05:10 PM » |
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These changes also don't contribute to new forms and funtion. If I am wrong on this point, please correct me. You don't like (and I do claim that it is a subjective point of view) that change in HbS is not big enough to be called "new" binding site. Now when there is a more drastic change of form and function after more changes (and different selection pressure and time since change of function) the problem is to identify the two proteins as descendants from the same predecessor. The problem is solved if you can show that there is a valid evolutionary pathway from the presumed predecessor to the presumed products. In the case of flagellum, I stipulated this and started with all the components in existence since I didn't care to identify pathways for the origination problem. Why should we presume that drastically different proteins are derived from a previous common protein? The answer is that we should not presume it but we can infer it when a known process can be applied to the problem and can account for the transformation from predecessor to product both physically and probabilistically. Example: If I take aa sequence for flagellin (genebank ac. number BAB36085) and BLAST it against proteins from human genome, I get that the closest match is XP_497341, PREDICTED: similar to mucin 19 (Identities = 82/332 (24%), Positives = 114/332 (34%), Gaps = 14/332 (4%)). Mucin has a different function. But is it a result of a series of mutations from flagellin? The answer is: unable to confirm because the aa sequence is too different. But it is still possible, you calculate if within 10^150. If we had enough interest, I suppose we could identify a plausible pathway and calculate the probability. It would be quite a bit of effort. It [the number] was selected to be conservative and to avoid needless argument over probability opportunities. Still a guess. What if I prefer some other number? My subjective opinion should be worth something. Any alternate number should have a basis in probability theory.
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« Last Edit: November 14, 2007, 08:02:27 PM by Reasoned Faith »
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daedalus 2.0
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« Reply #62 on: November 14, 2007, 06:29:36 PM » |
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I am asking for any hypothetical evolutionary explanation. One that honors the narrative and is specific. It needs to be specific so we can be objective about the permutations and probability landscape. I have proposed a hypothetical pathway for HbS from Hb and chance easily explains HbS. I also proposed one for flagellum from a hypothetical bacteria that lacked the structure but had access to all the materials. In this case chance could not explain flagellum. If you propose other mechanisms we can put those to the test too. i must have missed it in all the manure: where did you specifically point out where the design occured?
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« Last Edit: November 14, 2007, 06:44:25 PM by daedalus 2.0 »
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\\\\"SUCK IT, JESUS!\\\\" Kathy Griffin \"Hitler burns Anne Frank for a day, and it\'s Evil. God burns Anne Frank for eternity, and it\'s Just.\"Anon
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jpn of Seattle
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« Reply #63 on: November 14, 2007, 07:26:26 PM » |
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By the way, evolution does not work by "chance," other than with regard to the random variation within genes. This is chance, yes, but that random variation takes place in a hostile environment which favors advantageous variation, and disfavors disadvantageous variation.
The process of natural selection is often mischaracterized by the use of the word "chance."
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« Last Edit: November 14, 2007, 07:27:57 PM by jpn of Seattle »
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What you got is everything-and I mean everything—run by the political arm. It’s the reign of the Mayberry Machiavellis. --John DiIulio, former White House official
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Reasoned Faith
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« Reply #64 on: November 14, 2007, 08:07:50 PM » |
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By the way, evolution does not work by "chance," other than with regard to the random variation within genes. Yes I am aware of that. evolutionary processes have a chance component. This is chance, yes, but that random variation takes place in a hostile environment which favors advantageous variation, and disfavors disadvantageous variation.
The process of natural selection is often mischaracterized by the use of the word "chance."
If you look back you will see that it is characterized as "unintentional constrained contingency". Contingency is the chance component. The constraint is said to be Natural Selection presumably by a confluence of physical laws. Thank you for that bit of wisdom jpn.
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« Last Edit: November 14, 2007, 08:32:09 PM by Reasoned Faith »
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illy
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illerino if youre not into the whole brevity thing
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« Reply #65 on: November 14, 2007, 08:36:33 PM » |
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I don't think the results will change much relative to the 10^150 universal limit. Where did that number came from?
It is the upper bound of all the macro-events that could ever have occured in this universe. It is the number of atoms in the universe times the number of atomic collisions per second times the number of seconds this universe is old. It places a reasonable upper bound on what chance can explain. Do you know that the number of atoms in the universe is constant, or can matter and energy interchange? Can you also calculate the total energy of the universe? Because if matter and energy can interchange, you would need to know the total sum of all the energy in the universe, not just how many atoms exist right now.
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Ammunition spitting is him, is it, you listening Littering written, it\\'s in slippers, get the rebel in him Sticking it with sinners, sizzlin\\' rhythm, verbally hit him Did he did it, or did he didn\\'t, admit it - Rugged Man - Give it Up
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Reasoned Faith
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« Reply #66 on: November 14, 2007, 08:56:02 PM » |
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I don't think the results will change much relative to the 10^150 universal limit. Where did that number came from?
It is the upper bound of all the macro-events that could ever have occured in this universe. It is the number of atoms in the universe times the number of atomic collisions per second times the number of seconds this universe is old. It places a reasonable upper bound on what chance can explain. Do you know that the number of atoms in the universe is constant, or can matter and energy interchange? Can you also calculate the total energy of the universe? Because if matter and energy can interchange, you would need to know the total sum of all the energy in the universe, not just how many atoms exist right now. True enough. The number of atoms is not constant. The number is the mass equivalent, it is estimated by gravitational measurements and therefore includes energy (Relativity theory has been confirmed on this point, unconstrained energy does indeed have inertia). Furthermore the difference/error is in the noise since the number of elements in the periodic table is small so any error is less than three orders of magnitude.
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tejtej
ta terjast
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« Reply #67 on: November 14, 2007, 09:44:54 PM » |
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Why should we presume that drastically different proteins are derived from a previous common protein? Because we know mechanisms that cause mutations, we understand how mutations are fixed in a population, because this was observed on bacteria trying to evade host immune system by changing surface antigens. Why should we presume that drastically different proteins are derived from a previous common protein? And also because you WANT examples of proteins that changed trough evolution to a degree that they have "new" binding sites and have a "new" function. The answer is that we should not presume it but we can infer it when a known process can be applied to the problem and can account for the transformation from predecessor to product both physically and probabilistically. I gave a possibility of how flagellum could have evolved from simpler structures. Outside body of flagellum has a similar structure to most elements of cytoskeleton. The only thing is that it is on the outside. Motor holds the flagellum outside and moves. Well protein transporters in the membrane work by changing their 3D structure when they grab a protein on the inside of the cell in such a way, that they bring it outside. So flagellum could originate from a protein transporter, only that transported proteins are assembled outside and connected to the motor, while motor can still change its 3D structure - resulted in rotation. Would this be a possible pathway? The problem with it is that while you can calculate with probabilities, molecular biologists don't bother with such possibilities. When they compare aa sequences, the difference is such that you can't assume that proteins and genes have the same origin. Hb to HbS is simpler, because a small number of step by step mutations can be followed, when the number of mutation rises it can include double mutations (like A->T->C), reverse mutations (A->T->A). Such "saturation of mutations" can be identified and when discovered, common origin is no longer assumed. Any 2 genes can have the common origin, but for most pairs the probability is low. Check BLAST algorithms on how similarity between 2 sequences is calculated. Any alternate number should have a basis in probability theory. A basis for 10^150 is "the upper bound of all the macro-events that could ever have occurred in this universe". What do molecules have to do with macro events? Why not "the number of all tossed coins", "probability for winning a lottery"?
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Slovenc, tvoja zemlja je zdrava in pridnim nje lega najprava. Pólje, vinograd, gora, morjé, ruda, kupčija tebe rede.
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jpn of Seattle
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« Reply #68 on: November 14, 2007, 09:47:07 PM » |
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you for that bit of wisdom jpn. Always happy to help you out, RF. 
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What you got is everything-and I mean everything—run by the political arm. It’s the reign of the Mayberry Machiavellis. --John DiIulio, former White House official
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tejtej
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« Reply #69 on: November 14, 2007, 09:48:31 PM » |
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By the way, evolution does not work by "chance," other than with regard to the random variation within genes. This is chance, yes, but that random variation takes place in a hostile environment which favors advantageous variation, and disfavors disadvantageous variation.
The process of natural selection is often mischaracterized by the use of the word "chance." Mutations are random, chance in selection exists (genetic drift), but is generaly slower when compared with positive and negative selection and less important in populations with a large number of individuals.
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Slovenc, tvoja zemlja je zdrava in pridnim nje lega najprava. Pólje, vinograd, gora, morjé, ruda, kupčija tebe rede.
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Reasoned Faith
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« Reply #70 on: November 15, 2007, 04:17:57 PM » |
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I was working on a response to your other questions but did not finish. Will post that tomorrow. Any alternate number should have a basis in probability theory. A basis for 10^150 is "the upper bound of all the macro-events that could ever have occurred in this universe". What do molecules have to do with macro events? Why not "the number of all tossed coins", "probability for winning a lottery"? Atomic events are the smallest interactions that can act at the molecular level. Mutations are molecular events. Each relevant interaction is an opportunity for a chance event to cause the target event to occur. Therefore, once we've considered the possibility of 10^150 independent opportunities in figuring probability of an event or series of events, we have exhausted all the opportunities in the entire universe.
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illy
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illerino if youre not into the whole brevity thing
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« Reply #71 on: November 15, 2007, 05:58:42 PM » |
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I don't think the results will change much relative to the 10^150 universal limit. Where did that number came from?
It is the upper bound of all the macro-events that could ever have occured in this universe. It is the number of atoms in the universe times the number of atomic collisions per second times the number of seconds this universe is old. It places a reasonable upper bound on what chance can explain. Do you know that the number of atoms in the universe is constant, or can matter and energy interchange? Can you also calculate the total energy of the universe? Because if matter and energy can interchange, you would need to know the total sum of all the energy in the universe, not just how many atoms exist right now. True enough. The number of atoms is not constant. The number is the mass equivalent, it is estimated by gravitational measurements and therefore includes energy (Relativity theory has been confirmed on this point, unconstrained energy does indeed have inertia). Furthermore the difference/error is in the noise since the number of elements in the periodic table is small so any error is less than three orders of magnitude. Well, my knowledge of physics is a little rusty, but that does sound a bit more plausible than just knowing how many atoms there are. I'm curious about this number. I'm going to use the following quote, it's a very concise definition. It is the upper bound of all the macro-events that could ever have occured in this universe. It is the number of atoms in the universe times the number of atomic collisions per second times the number of seconds this universe is old. It places a reasonable upper bound on what chance can explain. We have Total mass equivalent (kg) * Total time (sec) * Number of atomic collisions/sec ( unitless/seconds ?) = 10^150 (units?, something times grams or just grams?) Specifically, I'm curious about how the the values put in for the variables were obtained. I'm also unsure of units for collisions a second, I'm assuming unitless/sec?. Same with the number of atoms, I'm assuming this is a mass measurement in kg? I'm also curious what the confidence interval is if the number is based on probability theory.
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Ammunition spitting is him, is it, you listening Littering written, it\\'s in slippers, get the rebel in him Sticking it with sinners, sizzlin\\' rhythm, verbally hit him Did he did it, or did he didn\\'t, admit it - Rugged Man - Give it Up
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Reasoned Faith
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« Reply #72 on: November 17, 2007, 09:45:33 AM » |
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Why should we presume that drastically different proteins are derived from a previous common protein? Because we know mechanisms that cause mutations, we understand how mutations are fixed in a population, because this was observed on bacteria trying to evade host immune system by changing surface antigens. Experimental, theoretical and molecular biology has demonstrated that these mutations by observed evolutionary processes are limited in scope and don't seem to accumulate in accordance with an evolutionary pathway that the narrative presumes. Indications are that when more than three distinct alterations are required in a pathway to a modified form, evolutionary processes does not bridge this gap. Analysis from probability studies provides the basis to explain why this is since the number of alternate permutations is so large and because the intermediate alterations are not selectable and therefore these intermediates do not form a large group, there simply are not enough opportunities for a functional set of alterations to arise. Therefore if the functional gap is greater than three mutations in a typical sized protein, it just does not happen. Why should we presume that drastically different proteins are derived from a previous common protein? And also because you WANT examples of proteins that changed trough evolution to a degree that they have "new" binding sites and have a "new" function. Fair enough. In the example of flagellum I stipulated these proteins into existence, to simplify the calculations and to give chance an unearned advantage. Therefore this presumption has no effect on this topic unless you are attempting to propose a presumed pathway to the finished product through mutation to avoid the combitorial requirement for localization and configuration. Is this your purpose? I gave a possibility of how flagellum could have evolved from simpler structures. Outside body of flagellum has a similar structure to most elements of cytoskeleton. The only thing is that it is on the outside.
Motor holds the flagellum outside and moves. Well protein transporters in the membrane work by changing their 3D structure when they grab a protein on the inside of the cell in such a way, that they bring it outside.
So flagellum could originate from a protein transporter, only that transported proteins are assembled outside and connected to the motor, while motor can still change its 3D structure - resulted in rotation.
Would this be a possible pathway? I think so. It is the high level beginnings of the pathway. As you continue to define the steps a complete pathway could emerge. Then we can apply probability estimates to see if chance accounts for this pathway. The problem with it is that while you can calculate with probabilities, molecular biologists don't bother with such possibilities. When they compare aa sequences, the difference is such that you can't assume that proteins and genes have the same origin. Hb to HbS is simpler, because a small number of step by step mutations can be followed, when the number of mutation rises it can include double mutations (like A->T->C), reverse mutations (A->T->A). Such "saturation of mutations" can be identified and when discovered, common origin is no longer assumed. Any 2 genes can have the common origin, but for most pairs the probability is low. Check BLAST algorithms on how similarity between 2 sequences is calculated. I think we are both pointing at the same issue but through different lenses. You start with the presumption that evolution has executed a path but it is too tortuous for us to discover what that path was. I believe that we can use probability to provide an indication of the confidence in the presumption. I look at evolutionary processes with skepticism and see the presumed tortuous path as too difficult for evolutionary processes to navigate and therefore doubt if the pathway actually exists at all. The test for Specified Complexity gives us an objective way to infer which viewpoint is more likely correct.
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tejtej
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« Reply #73 on: November 17, 2007, 11:13:45 AM » |
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I have to admit, you are good at these kind of debates. I usually lost interest in treads longer than 3 pages, but I'll remember you if I find a good paper with good examples of accumulated mutations in relation with gain of function(s). The test for Specified Complexity gives us an objective way to infer which viewpoint is more likely correct. Objective and 10^150 as certainty. I'll have to check with our statisticians. I stop messing with data when I reach 0.95 confidence.
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Slovenc, tvoja zemlja je zdrava in pridnim nje lega najprava. Pólje, vinograd, gora, morjé, ruda, kupčija tebe rede.
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Reasoned Faith
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« Reply #74 on: November 17, 2007, 11:41:55 AM » |
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I have to admit, you are good at these kind of debates. I usually lost interest in treads longer than 3 pages, but I'll remember you if I find a good paper with good examples of accumulated mutations in relation with gain of function(s). I would appreciate it. Short of these pathways, the only other possibility I can envision seems to be random mutation of nonfunctional surplus genes and pseudogenes or other such junk DNA until they happen to hit on new functional configurations. The problem with this is that if Axe's research is correct, this process will hit on one of these once every 10^55 mutations, far too slowly to account for observed diversity. Thank you for the compliment, I appreciate your patience with me and your knowledge and skill at explanations. The test for Specified Complexity gives us an objective way to infer which viewpoint is more likely correct. Objective and 10^150 as certainty. I'll have to check with our statisticians. I stop messing with data when I reach 0.95 confidence. [/quote] When I was working with statistical analysis of process data in California, I stopped at two standard deviations (about 96% for a normal distribution, I think). The number 10^150 puts us so far beyond the numbers you and I accept it should not even be an issue. The fact that some people do take issue with it is quite illuminating to me.
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